Aug. 1st, 2014

Today was the first time I had heard the argument for Mary not really being a virgin. Well, not exactly, but it was the first time I had heard a specific reason for people to say that it wasn't so. Apparently the idea going around is that the original Aramaic and Hebrew word used for the prophecy found in Isaiah 7:14 meant "young  woman" or "maiden" and that "virgin" is a mistranslation. Seeing as the place I came across this information was on tumblr, which is hardly a reputable source, I did my own research.

The Hebrew word in question is הָעַלְמָה ha-al'mah.
I tried finding the Aramaic term, but that's proving to be more difficult.

There were a lot of articles that left out a ton of context, so here are a couple that really dig deep, using well rounded reasoning and sources.

Fight the Good Fight Blog: http://growinthespirit.blogspot.com/2013/11/the-meaning-of-hebrew-word-almah-or.html

Andrews University Publication: http://www.andrews.edu/~davidson/Publications/Messianic%20Prophecies/Messianic%20Hope%20in%20Isaiah.pdf

In the gospels it's not even a question that Mary is referred to as a virgin. Here's the Greek word.

παρθένος,n  \{par-then'-os}
1) a virgin  1a) a marriageable maiden  1b) a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man  1c) one's marriageable daughter  2) a man who has abstained from all uncleanness and whoredom  attendant on idolatry, and so has kept his chastity  2a) one who has never had intercourse with women

Sites used: Wiktionary, The Online Greek Bible, Bible Hub.

I'd like to find my own offline sources too. Sounds like a trip to the library.~

May edit this for other sources and updated info later.

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